Time: Finite or infinite? (and other related topics), What are your thoughts on time? |
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Time: Finite or infinite? (and other related topics), What are your thoughts on time? |
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Member ![]() ![]() Group: Member Posts: 14 Joined: Aug 2006 Member No: 450,796 ![]() |
Recently, I was involved in a heavy discussion with a few people regarding one of Zeno's famous paradoxes, generally referred to as "The Dichotomy Paradox." Simply put, if one wants to travel from any one point to another, he must first travel half of that distance, and then half of that distance, and then half of that distance, and so on and so forth, infinitely. However, it is an axiom that it is impossible to do an infinite amount of things in a finite amount of time. Therefore, logically, we can never reach the second point. In fact, if you were to reverse the logic on it as well, we would never even be able to move from where we are standing.
This is where my theory comes into play. In a universe where time is infinite, we would logically never reach that point. However, seeing as in the real world, we do reach the door, the main factor that is different is motion. In an infinite universe, the paradoxical idea that we would never even be able to move would hold true; we would literally never move in an infinite universe, as motion would cease to exist. However, since there is such thing as time, it allows for motion. One way to relate the two is using speed. We know the formula s=d/t, speed equals distance divided by time. You can never divide a number by 0 or infinite. Therefore, if the time were 0 or infinite, you would have no speed or no distance, you would have simply nothing. However, as soon as you throw in a real number, it makes the equation possible, bringing about the effects of motion. What I'm saying is, the dichotomy paradox is actually proof that time and motion exist because of each other. If you take away all motion, time ceases to exist. If you take away all time, motion ceases to exist. Anyone disagree? Also, I was in heavy thinking mode yesterday after everyone left, and my roommate and I were kind of hanging out and chatting. We were going over some of the stuff we talked about, and I jotted down a few ideas...here's what I came up with. --- Assume time is finite. Then, time started at some point. Logically, time has to end if it is finite. Then, if time ends, everything ceases to exist, because motion is dependent upon time. If time is finite, then before it began, there was no time, therefore there was no motion. By no motion, I mean absolute absence of motion. Not a single molecule would move, ever. The slightest move would create time. Since time began, there must have been a cause for the disturbance of molecules. There was some motion that was created, since objects at rest stay at rest unless acted upon. (If time=0 or time=infinite, then nothing could move; s=d/t, and nothing can be divided by 0 or infinite. Therefore, before time, when time=0, nothing was in motion). Time is finite, because if time ceases to exist, then everything ceases to exist. Time can never reach infinite, yet it is always approaching it. Therefore, it is, paradoxically infinite. If time were to end, then it would, per se, become infinite, which is logically impossible. Therefore, time will always be, and always was, yet is not infinite. ---- Any different opinions? This is a subject I've been really interested in as of lately after picking up "Achilles in the Quantum Universe -- the Definitive History of Infinity," a book by Richard Morris. I would like to get some feedback and possible analysis of my theories, and maybe someone could try to point out some flaws. |
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