QUOTE(NoSex @ Mar 3 2008, 04:49 PM)

That the mind perceives aesthetic pleasure might constitute "beauty," but does it maintain that beauty must exist? The objective reality that the mind perceives something surely cannot be a convincing argument that that thing must, by necessity, exist (let alone exist objectively).
Of course it does. Concepts are objective by mere definition. Whether or not the appealing effect of beauty is plausible has no bearing on the concept itself actually existing. The concept of the flying spaghetti monster is objectively real. The effect of that - such a being actually existing - is not. It would be a contradiction to acknowledge the phenomenon of visual pleasure as being subjective, and then turning around to posit that because it's a cognitive reflection, it cannot be substantiated enough to be objective. By that grounds, it couldn't be subjective, either, or even anything at all. Since we can grasp it to
any degree, that clearly isn't the case.
QUOTE(NoSex @ Mar 3 2008, 04:49 PM)

The "nature" or "existence" of physically concrete objects is enigmatic and compelling enough. Your metaphysical meanderings are just meaningless overstatements of epistemological understandings. You posit some sort of knowledge that a nature of beauty exists independently of our perception, on an objective plain, but have no demonstrative method to secure such an idea.
Beauty is not an independent property of cognition. That's an absurd statement. Mountains would still exist without minds to garner their perceived beauty. Beauty is objective in its universal appeal
to the mind. That's self-evident. What's ironic is how the argument against that is self-defeating in regards to beauty being objectively subjective. By asserting a property of consistency, you're creating an objective concept.
QUOTE(NoSex @ Mar 3 2008, 04:49 PM)

Further, the discovery that no "consolidated ontological truth to aspire to" exists in particular fields of philosophy (aesthetics, ethics, etc.) has already been proposed by skeptics, logical positivists, etc. It isn't a particularly new idea, and nor has it threatened the vivaciousness of philosophy.
It isn't a "particularly new idea"? It's not a new idea at all. It's the entire premise for the foundations of philosophy and science: to discover knowledge in contradiction of that cosmological limit. Nobody made it out to be recent. If adverse postulations were new, there would be nothing to ascertain because everything would be incontrovertible.
QUOTE(NoSex @ Mar 3 2008, 04:49 PM)

Well, that's such an abstraction as to render the whole world meaningless. In that particular case, all things ever once perceived in pleasure would be held to be "beautiful." I think what we're discussing here is certainly a much larger philosophy. We're questioning the fundamental essence of "beauty," and asking if it exists, as a property, without the invention of the human imagination and creativity.
Not in the least, as I've made clear:
"...the concept itself is caused by a specific pleasure instigated by the various faculties
of the mind..."
"The objective reality
of the mind perceiving the aesthetic pleasure that constitutes 'beauty'."
Beauty being ontologically external from one's personal preference doesn't render it an independent attribute of the mind. It's obviously a sensation concocted by cerebral circumstances - it's just an objective one.
QUOTE(NoSex @ Mar 3 2008, 04:49 PM)

Your proposition of objectivity dependent on a subjective perception is weak and unconvincing.
Obviously, it would be, because objectivity isn't dependent on perception. That's exactly what I've already railed against:
"You may perceive someone as being attractive while another person may not, but the concept of what beauty is characterized by is an objective reality."
In that, I contrasted the difference between simply
perceiving an aesthetic quality and the linear, non-relative definition of an established term.
QUOTE(NoSex @ Mar 3 2008, 04:49 PM)

What does that mean, exactly, to call beauty a "universal pleasure." For one, we could never determine or measure the independent individual experience of perceived beauty and, embarrassingly, find ourselves hard-pressed to even describe our own personal awareness of beauty.
The degree of scope has nothing to do with it existing, however little of an extent. It only takes one line with true premises and a false conclusion to establish the invalidity of an invalid inference. Consequently, whatever establishes "beauty" doesn't have to surpass some artificial, quantitative measure to qualify as an instance of it. If it's observable, then it's existing as that property.
QUOTE(NoSex @ Mar 3 2008, 04:49 PM)

Secondly, how is the concept of beauty "grounded," when philosophers, scientists, mystics, and laymen alike have never been able to agree upon its supposed nature, likeness, and or "identical properties."
Simple: by being objective. The only way for that concern to have merit would be relativity and susceptibility to individual, perceptive characteristics.
QUOTE(NoSex @ Mar 3 2008, 04:49 PM)

Just because men might share a sensation does not mean that that sensation arises from and or is determined by a denotative and objective quality.
If it didn't/wasn't, then it could not possibly be a shared characteristic.